Đề thi học sinh năng khiếu Tiếng anh 8 – THCS Yên Lập

Đề thi học sinh năng khiếu Tiếng anh 8

SECTION 1. NGHE HIỂU (Listening)                                                 : 10 câu.

SECTION 2. NGỮ ÂM (Phonetics)                                                     : 5 câu.

SECTION 3. TỪ VỰNG VÀ NGỮ PHÁP (Lexico-grammar)           : 40 câu.

SECTION 4. ĐỌC HIỂU (Reading):                                                    : 25 câu.

SECTION 5. VIẾT (Writing):                                                   

10 câu (viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không đổi so với câu đã cho)

– Viết 1 bức thư (120- 150 từ)

 HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI:

  • Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm.
  • Đề thi gồm có 8 trang. Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài.
  • Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác (kể cả bút xóa màu trắng). Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại.
  • Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng.
  • Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi. Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì kể cả từ điển.

 SECTION 1. LISTENING

Listen to the news and decide if these sentences are true or false. Write your T (true) or F (false) in the answer box. You will hear the recording twice. (10 points)

  1. It’s difficult for scientists to recycle car tires.
  2. The bag used to be milk cartoons.
  3. It takes one large bottle to make five large T-shirts.
  4. You can make greeting cards from magazines.
  5. The prize for the competition is a T-shirt.

Write your answers (T or F) here:

1 ……………..

2……………………

3…………………….

4……………………

5…………………

Listen to four teenagers talking about their weekends and answer the questions. Then complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. Write your answers in the answer box You will hear the recording twice. (10 points)

  1. Ella broke the …………………(1)……………………
  2. Abi celebrated ………………(2)…………….on Saturday with her ………….(3)………. .
  3. Daisy lost …………………(4)…………. in the cinema.
  4. Chloe …………………(5)……….. for her family on Sunday.

Write your answers  here:

1 ……………..

2 ……………………

3 …………………….

4 ………………..

5 …………………

SECTION 2: PHONETICS

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers in the space provided. (6 points)

1.

A. beloved

B. hatred

C. ragged

D. amused

2.

A. heritage

B. giant

C. garden

D. village

3.

A. pronounce

B. cousin

C. enough

D. country

Write your answers here:

1 ……………..

2……………………

3…………………….

4……………………

5…………………

Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the group. Write your answers in the space provided. (4 points)

1.A. original

B. magnificient   

C. convenient                    

D. wonderful

2. A. voluntary

B. academic   

C. application                   

D. education 

Write your answers here:

1 ……………..

2……………………

3…………………….

4……………………

5…………………

 SECTION 3. LEXICO – GRAMMAR 

Choose the correct answer(s) to complete each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. (70 points). There may be more than ONE correct answer.

1 He was offered the job …………..…. his qualifications were poor.

A. although

B. in spite of

C. because of                       

D. because

2. It’s no use ……….……. a language if you don’t try to speak it.

A. learned

B. to learn

C. learn                     

D. learning

3. He ………..…. me to take a lawyer to the court with me.

A. advised

B. suggested

C. threatened            

D. insisted

4. I really prefer just about anything ……………. watching TV.

A. from

B. or                                         

C. than                       

D. to

5. Gold ……………..near San Francisco in 1848 and the gold rush started the following year.

A. has been discovered

B. discovered                                   

C. was discovered   

D. is discovered

6. I regret ……………. you that we can’t approve your application.

A. inform

B. to inform

C. informing             

D. informed  

7. Before she left for Australia she promised her parents that she would drop them ………… at least once a month.

A. a note

B. a word                              

C. the news               

D. a line

8. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”

Mary: “………..…………”

A. Yes, I am.

B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.  

C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one.

D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.

9. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”

Mr John:  “………..…………”

A. No problem

B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.

c. It’s nice of you to say so.

D. I think so.

10. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ………..………… .

A. character

B. looking                             

C. appearance          

D. personality

11. As soon as you ………..………… that, I’d like you to go to bed.

A. have done

B. did                                     

C. will do                  

D. will have done

12. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. – “………..…………”

A. OK, what time?

B. That sounds great.          

C. I know                  

D. I’m sure

13. What time are you ………..………… duty? Let’s have a coffee after that.

A. over

B. on    

C. off                         

D. out of

14. The house was ………………….. building.

A. a stone nice old

B. a nice old stone               

C. a nice stone old    

D. an old nice stone

15. Analysts suggested the country ………..………… its infrastructure to get foreign investment.

A. improve

B. to improve                       

C. improves             

D. improving

16. ………..………… my friends were unsuccessful at the job interviews.

A. Most

B. The most of                     

C. Most of             

D. Most out of

17. I have some home work. I ……………..… finish it before I play table tennis.

A. should to

B. need to

C. ought                    

D. want

18. ………..………… people go to the movies now than ten years ago.

A. Fewer

B. Few

C. Less                      

D. Lesser

19. No one knows that he comes from ………..………… Netherlands.

A. the

B. Þ                           

C. an                          

D. a 

20. He climbed out of the swimming pool, picked up a towel and dried ………..………… .

A. itself

B. by himself

C. its                          

D. himself

21. I’m very ……………… to hear that we will go to Da Lat tomorrow.

A. excite

B. excited

C. excitedly              

D. exciting

22. My parents and my friends saw me ……………….. at the railway station.

A. in

B. for

C. up                          

D. off

23. There are ………………. many people in the cinema that I can’t see the film clearly.

A. such

B. so

C. too                         

D. enough

24. Prevention is better than ……………………… .

A. treatment

B. pills

C. cure                       

D. doctors

25. All the new classrooms were ………………… painted.

A. bad

B. badly

C. worse                    

D. good

26. The –ing form of “run” was spelled ………………………. a double “r”

A. with

B. by

C. Without                

D. of

27. She doesn’t ………..………… well with the new manager.

A. take on

B. get on

C. keep on                

D. go on

28. Mary: “Who is your brother?” Terry: “………..………….”

A. He is the boy wearing a white T-shirt

B. He is the boy worn a white T-shirt

C. He is the boy is wearing a white T-shirt

D. He is the boy is worn a white T-shirt

29. Charles Darwin was the father of the ………..………… of evolution.

A. idea

B. project

C. theory                   

D. problem

30. I was just ………..………… to go out when you telephoned.

A. around

B. about

C. thinking                

D. round

31. Look at these flowers! I think they need………………………….

A. water

B. to water

C. watering               

D. to be watered

32. Wait! Bill and Tom ………………..here in a few minutes.

A. come

B. are come

C. will come             

D. came

33. Last month, my family paid a ……………… to Bai Dinh Pagoda.

A. attention

B. visit

C. attendance                       

D. intention

34. Nowadays children like subjects at school ……………… in a more practical way.

A. teaching

B. to be taught

C. teach                     

D. to teach

35. I think I hear someone ………………. the back window. Do you hear it, too?

A. trying open

B. trying to open

C. try opening          

D. try to open

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) here

1 ………..

2……………….

3………………..

4……………….

5…………….

6 ………..

7……………….

8………………..

9……………….

10…………..

11 ….……

12……………..

13……………..

14……………..

15……………

16 ……….

17……………..

18……………..

19……………..

20……………

21 ……….

 22 ……………..

 23 ……………..

 24 ……………..

 25 ……………

26 ……….

 27……………..

28……………..

 29……………..

 30……………

31 ……….

 32……………..

33……………..

 34……………..

 35……………

 

There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake by choosing A,B,C or D. Write your answers in the space provided. (10 points)

  1. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.

                   A                    B                         C                                     D

  1. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable

                                                                      A                                           B 

and awareness of the problem to be solved.

                C                                      D

  1. Could you tell me how faris it to the nearest station, please?

              A                       B      C                        D

  1. Mark comes from a city locatingin the southern part of the country.

          A                  B        C                             D

  1. Did you ever learn playing a musical instrument as a child?

      A           B                C                                         D

Write your answers here:

1……………

2……………

3…………

4……………

5……………

 SECTION 4. READING

VII. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the passage (20 points)

The (1) …………. part in Ioannina is the lake front. Ships fetch more people and tourists to the island. Near the front lake (2) …………….an ancient castle. If you go for a (3) …………. in the night to the front lake you’ll see (4) …………. lights that shines in the castle. A second way is to go around on a mountain. There you can see the whole town. In the night with so many lights, it looks to you (5) ………….a sky.

Another beautiful part in this town (6) ……………the large clock in the square. Specifically, the clock (7) ……………… in the center of the city. My town also has many museums. Paul Vrellis, who is a professor, put in many different and other important people from the 1st and 2nd world war with wax. In my opinion, it’s (8)…………… museum.

About remains, there are two renowned theaters. There’s the theater of Dodoni, which is situated in the  (9) ………… of the city. It’s normally out of the city. Every summer the most (10) ………. actors of the capital of Greece come to perform there.

1.A. more beautiful

B. as beautiful

C. so beautiful         

D. most beautiful

2. A. there is

B. it is

C. it has                     

D. there has

3. A. picnic

B. walk

C. jog                         

D. run

4. A. more brilliant

B. as brilliant

C. much brilliant     

D. most brilliant

5. A. from

B. as

C. like                        

D. to

6. A. be

B. are

C. is                           

D. to be

7. A. situated

B. is situated

C. be situated                       

D. are situated

8. A. the most best

B. the better

C. the best                 

D. the well

9. A. outskirt

B. top

C. side                       

D. edge

10. A. famous

B. fame

C. famed                   

D. known

Write your answers here:

1 …………..

2……………….

3………………..

4………………

5…………….

6 …………..

7……………….

8………………..

9………………

10……………

VIII. Read the following passage and decide whether the statements below are True (T) or Falsse (F). (10 points)

English food

Foreign visitors to England often ask people for advice on a good restaurant but when their host suggest one to them it is usually Italian or Friench. “But I mean a typically English restaurant,” they say. So as not to disappoint them, the host answers as best as he can. The truth is that English people enjoy their own cooking at home but are often ashamed of its in public. Even the experts who write articles on food prefer to use the French word “cuisine”, which suggests that cooking is inferior.

In fact, English cooking is not nearly so bad as people think. The trouble with it, in my opinion, is that most appetizing typical dishes do not go with the wine. At home, English people usually drink either water or beer or even (however strange it may seem) tea with their meals; in restaurant, they sometimes think they had better order wine for the sake of appearances.

  1. It is difficult to find a typically English restaurant in England.
  2. English people don’t enjoy their own cooking at home but are often proud of its in public
  3. According to the author, English people use the French word “cuisine”, which means that they undervalue the cooking.
  4. It is thought that English food is terrible and actually it is.
  5. English food is terrible because all most appetizing typical dishes do not go with the wine.

Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points)

Communication- the advantage of the internet

The foremost target of the Internet has always been the communication. And the Internet has excelled beyond the expectations. Still, innovations are going (1)__________ to make it faster, (2)___________ reliable. By the advent of computer’s (3)_________, our earth has reduced and has attained the form of (4) ____________ globle village.

Now we can communicate in a fraction of second (5)_________ a person (6)_______ is sitting in the other (7)________ of the world. Today for better communication, we can avail the facilities of e-mail; we can chat for hours with (8)_________ loved ones. There are plenty messenger services in offering. With help of (9)________ services, it has become very easy to establish a kind of globle friendship (10)_________ you can share your thoughts, can explore other cultures of different ethnicity.

Write your answers here:

1 …………..

2……………….

3………………..

4………………

5…………….

6 …………..

7……………….

8………………..

9………………

10……………

 SECTION 5. WRITING

XII. Rewrite the sentences without any changes in meaning to the original ones.(20 points)

  1. There’s a large restaurant in the art gallery

=> The art gallery ……………………………………………………………………………………

  1. I haven’t seen that man here before.

=> It’s ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. I’m quite happy to look after the baby for you.

=> I don’t …………………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. “Would you like to go to the concert with me tonight?” Peter said to Ann.

=> Peter invited ……………………………………………………………………………………….

  1. The keepers feed the lions at 3 p.m everyday.

=> The lions ……………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. John finds astronomy very interesting

=> John is ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

  1. The cinema didn’t become an industry until 1915

=> It was not …………………………………………………………………………………

  1. “I like your coat , I’m looking for one like that myself” she said to me

=> She told me ………………………………………………………………………………..

  1. I feel uncomfortable to be in a classroom where everybody is making so much noise.

=> I can’t stand ……………………………………………………………………………

  1. The test is so difficult that students need three months to prepare.

=> So ………………………………………………………………………………………………….

XIII. Write a letter to your friend to tell him/her about a place you have visited recently. (120-150 words)(20 points)

                                   The end

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